Grace Definition

I think we struggle some with a definition for the word “grace," but I believe an all-encompassing definition would be "favor."  The word "favor" means "a kind act; something done or granted out of good will: ask a favor...a gift bestowed as a token of good will, kind regard, love, etc." ( The Random House College Dictionary).  Of course,  context and usage should determine meaning.  But I believe the word could be most broadly applied as speaking of favor. Favor is Lewis Sperry Chafer’s definition in his book “Grace – An Exposition of God’s Marvelous Gift.” Favor is the second most common translation of the Hebrew word “chen” other than the word grace.  Some say “unmerited favor.”    There are references in Scripture where it is very similar to the word “gift,” or to “free gift.” 

One might also ask what does the word mean when it is applied to a person and not to God, such as in Proverbs 22.11  “He who loves purity of heart  [And] [has]  grace [Heb. “chen”] on his lips,  The king [will] [be] his friend.”  What does it mean when a person shows grace to another, as the Persian king did to Esther: “2.17  The king loved Esther more than all the [other] women, and she obtained  grace [chen] and favor [Checed—“mercy”] in his sight more than all the virgins”?  In Psalm 45.2, we read that “grace is poured upon” the lips of who appears to be Christ—is this what John 1.17 references: “grace and truth came through Jesus Christ”—referring to His message?

Scripture tells us that it was the “grace of Christ" in his humbling himself to the point of death for us, 2Cor8.9.  This use of grace is repeated in Romans 5.15-21 in contrasting what Adam did with what Jesus did and the outcomes.  Grace seems to mean the same thing as “free gift.”  We do see “grace” used in John1.17 with reference to the contrast between Moses and Jesus as to what came through them, being the Law (Moses) and Grace and truth (Christ)--the definition of Grace would have to make sense with the contrast. (“ For the law was given through Moses, [but]  grace  and truth came through Jesus Christ.”)

In Romans 5.15-21, we have reference to the “grace” (charis) of Christ (and God), “free gift (chrisma), and the “gift” (dorea).  I believe the Charis and charisma of Christ refer to his death while the dorea is justification.  The charis/ charisma was the work of the cross, while the dorea is the gift of righteousness/ justification that is possible because of the charis/ charisma, if one believes in Jesus for it.   And so being saved by grace is to be saved by the death of Christ, which (his death) was an act of grace.  This same usage of grace of Christ could be referenced in Acts 15.11:    "But we believe that through the  grace  of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved in the same manner as they."  We are to be established in and grow in this grace of Christ, 2 Pet 3.18a: “but grow in the  grace  and knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ.”

Justification is said to be by grace and is used in the contrast with works or the Law.  It speaks of what God does freely: He justifies us freely, apart from keeping the Law or works of righteousness--though connected to this grace is faith in Christ, because unless one believes, they don’t receive the justification that comes from God by grace: “24 being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus,  25  whom God set forth [as] a propitiation by His blood, through faith, … 26 that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.”  Romans 3   Grace is set forth in contrast with debt in the context of justification: “Now to him who works, the wages are not counted as  grace but as debt.” NKJ Rom4.4 (“wages” must figuratively speak of justification).   “Grace” signifies justifying the one “apart from works”  but through faith: “David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works,” and  “Therefore [it] [is] of faith that [it] [might] [be] according to  grace.”  Rom4.6,16  This grace of God is that truth which can build one up:  Acts 20: 32  "So now, brethren, I commend you to God and to the word of His  grace , which is able to build you up and give you an inheritance among all those who are sanctified.” 

The grace given in some contexts could be the the divine help, enablement, or ability given for something, like enduring a trial (Hebrews 4.16 speaks of this “grace” given in a time of need) or fulfilling a ministry in the church (such as the gifts given to the believer see Eph 3.2,7,8,4.7). In Romans 1.5, grace could speak of the enablement for their ministry to bring about obedience to the faith among (by) the nations: “Through Him we have received  grace  and apostleship for obedience to the faith among all nations for His name.”  This ability in gifts as grace could be in view in Acts 4.33:  “And with great power the apostles gave witness to the resurrection of the Lord Jesus. And great  grace  was upon them all.”  1Pet 4.10: “As each one has received a gift, minister it to one another, as good stewards of the manifold  grace  of God.”  This kind of grace to enable the believer would still come under the definition of favor.

Grace in reference to the work of Christ or how we are justified or saved I don’t see that as Divine enablement, unless you are using it with reference to pre-saving-faith-regeneration (or some say a "quickening") which some say happens when we first believe, which gives us the ability to believe (because of "total depravity"). But justification comes before regeneration (which seems clearly the case in Romans 5.15-21), and if we are justified by God’s grace, then the grace could not refer to regeneration.

In coming up with a definition for grace in the context of justification by grace, I believe we need to know the contrast is between grace and Law or grace and works.  It's not our works of the law or righteousness by which we are saved, but by God's grace, that is, what he freely gives, being his favor.

If the grace is the ability to believe, then what is that ability?  Could it be through the use of gifts or the message communicated? Maybe here speaks of this use of grace:  Acts 18.27b: “he [Apollo] greatly helped those who had believed through  grace.”  This  could speak of the ability that comes through spiritual gifts: Apollo helped those who believed through that working of God in him. Though it could be that he helped them in communicating the message of grace.  I question that the “through grace” has no reference to Apollo’s activity but just refers to how they were able to believe.  I think it is saying how Apollo helped those who had believed.

Why couldn’t the being justified by his grace just speak of it being freely given as opposed to it being through keeping the Law or works of righteousness?  But then even that grace is not given until one believes—but why is that a problem, since the grace given in a time of need, in Hebrews 4.16, is given to those who “come boldly to the throne of Grace?” But the grace by which we are justified is in contrast to justification by the Law, and that would seem to indicate that grace is that unmerited favor or free gift definition: justification by grace is justification apart from human merit (as by Law-keeping) but by unmerited favor or free gift.

The several uses of “Grace” or “favor” in the Old Testament, both being the translation of “chen” need consideration.  When Genesis says that Moses found “grace” in the eyes of God, would “favor” make sense here:  “But Noah found  grace  in the eyes of the Lord” 6.8?   It seems so.   Also consider what Moses says:  “  Ex33.13  "Now therefore, I pray, if I have found  grace  in Your sight, show me now Your way, that I may know You and that I may find  grace  in Your sight.”  Again, “favor” seems to fit here.

The definition is by usage and context.  However, in light of the Old Testament usages and the often contrasts with the law in the New Testament, I would say the most encompassing view is “favor” which can include the idea of that which is freely given.